Cisco 400-101 ExamCCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)

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Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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2016 Jul 400-101 cisco ccie written:

Q411. Refer to the exhibit. 


R1 is performing mutual redistribution, but OSPF routes from R3 are unable to reach R2. Which three options are possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.) 

A. R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RIP. 

B. The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks. 

C. R1 is filtering OSPF routes when redistributing into RIP. 

D. R3 and R1 have the same router ID. 

E. R1 and R3 have an MTU mismatch. 

F. R2 is configured to offset OSPF routes with a metric of 16. 

Answer: A,C,F 

Explanation: 

A. RIP requires a seed metric to be specified when redistributing routes into that protocol. A seed metric is a "starter metric" that gives the RIP process a metric it can work with. The OSPF metric of cost is incomprehensible to RIP, since RIP's sole metric is hop count. We've got to give RIP a metric it understands when redistributing routes into that protocol, so let's go back to R1 and do so. 

C. Filtering routes is another explanation, if the routes to R2 are boing filtered from being advertised to R1. 

F. If the metric is offset to 16, then the routes will have reached the maximum hop count when redistributed to RIP. The max hop count for RIP is 16. 


Q412. Refer to the exhibit. 


Which configuration reduces CPU utilization on R2 while still advertising the connected routes of R2 to R1? 

A. Configure eigrp stub connected on R2. 

B. Configure eigrp stub receive-only on R1. 

C. Configure eigrp stub static on R2. 

D. Configure eigrp stub summary on R1. 

Answer: A 


Q413. Which two statements about OSPF default route injection are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The ABR requires manual configuration to send a default route into an NSSA area. 

B. The ABR injects a default route into a Totally Stub Area. 

C. In a stub area, the ASBR generates a summary LSA with link-state ID 0.0.0.0. 

D. If the default route is missing from the routing table, the ASBR can use the default-information originate command to advertise the default into the OSPF domain. 

E. By default, OSPF normal areas will generate default routes into the routing domain if a default route exists. 

Answer: A,B 


Q414. Consider a network that mixes link bandwidths from 128 kb/s to 40 Gb/s. Which value should be set for the OSPF reference bandwidth? 

A. Set a value of 128. 

B. Set a value of 40000. 

C. Set a manual OSPF cost on each interface. 

D. Use the default value. 

E. Set a value of 40000000. 

F. Set a value of 65535. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Unlike the metric in RIP which is determined by hop count and EIGRP’s crazy mathematical formulated metric, OSPF is a little more simple. The default formula to calculate the cost for the OSPF metric is (10^8/BW). By default the metrics reference cost is 100Mbps, so any link that is 100Mbps will have a metric of 1. a T1 interface will have a metric of 64 so in this case if a router is trying to get to a FastEthernet network on a router that is through a T1 the metric would be 65 (64 +1). You do however have the ability to statically specify a metric on a per interface basis by using the ip ospf cost # where the cost is an integer between 1-65535. 

So the big question is why would you want to statically configure a metric? The biggest advantage of statically configuring an OSPF metric on an interface is to manipulate which route will be chosen dynamically via OSPF. In a nut shell it’s like statically configuring a dynamic protocol to use a specific route. It should also be used when the interface bandwidths vary greatly (some very low bandwidth interfaces and some very high speed interfaces on the same router). 


Q415. Refer to the exhibit. 


What is wrong with the configuration of the tunnel interface of this DMVPN Phase II spoke router? 

A. The interface MTU is too high. 

B. The tunnel destination is missing. 

C. The NHRP NHS IP address is wrong. 

D. The tunnel mode is wrong. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

By default, tunnel interfaces use GRE as the tunnel mode, but a DMVPN router needs to be configured for GRE multipoint by using the “tunnel mode gre multipoint” interface command. 


400-101 simulations

Rebirth 400-101 cisco ccie written:

Q416. Which two statements about the default behavior of IS-IS are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The default IS-IS router type is L1/L2. 

B. The default IS-IS metric type is wide. 

C. The default IS-IS interface circuit type is L1/L2. 

D. By default, two IS-IS routers must use the same hello interval and hold timer in order to become neighbors. 

Answer: A,C 


Q417. Which technology can be used to secure the core of an STP domain? 

A. UplinkFast 

B. BPDU guard 

C. BPDU filter 

D. root guard 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Since STP does not implement any authentication or encryption to protect the exchange of BPDUs, it is vulnerable to unauthorized participation and attacks. Cisco IOS offers the STP Root Guard feature to enforce the placement of the root bridge and secure the core of the STP domain. 

STP root guard forces a port to become a designated port so that no switch on the other end of the link can become a root switch. If a port configured for root guard receives a superior BPDU, the port it is received on is blocked. In this way, STP root guard blocks other devices from trying to become the root bridge. 

STP root guard should be enabled on all ports that will never connect to a root bridge, for example, all end user ports. This ensures that a root bridge will never be negotiated on those ports. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/Baseline_Security/secur ebasebook/sec_chap7.html 


Q418. Refer to the exhibit. 


The device with this configuration is unable to reach network 172.31.31.0/24. The next hop router has been verified to have full connectivity to the network. Which two actions can you take to establish connectivity to the network? (Choose two.) 

A. Create a static route to 172.16.199.0 using the address of the next hop router. 

B. Create a default route to the link address of the next hop router. 

C. Create a static route to the loopback address of the next hop router. 

D. Create a default route to 172.16.199.9. 

E. Modify the existing static route so that the next hop is 0.0.0.0. 

F. Replace the ip default-network command with the ip default-gateway command. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. 

For every network configured with ip default-network, if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. However, in this case if the router does not a route to the drfault network of 172.16.199.9, then you would need to ensure that this route exisits by creating a static route to 172.16.199.0 using the address of the next hop router, or simply create a default route using the address of the next hop router. 


Q419. Which three statements about the default behaviour of eBGP sessions are true? (Choose three.) 

A. eBGP sessions between sub-ASs in different confederations transmit the next hop unchanged. 

B. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the IP address of the neighbor that announced the route. 

C. When a route reflector reflects a route to a client, it transmits the next hop unchanged. 

D. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the loopback address of the interface that originated the route. 

E. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the loopback address of the neighbor that announced the route. 

F. When a route reflector reflects a route to a client, it changes the next hop to its own address. 

Answer: A,B,C 


Q420. Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two.) 

A. transport mode 

B. strict mode 

C. port mode 

D. loose mode 

E. VLAN mode 

F. dynamic mode 

Answer: C,E 


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